• UsernameHere@lemmings.world
    link
    fedilink
    arrow-up
    1
    arrow-down
    3
    ·
    9 months ago

    If it just needs to be “based in logical progression of real systems” to achieve the goal, then why has it not succeeded yet after centuries of existence?

    If I can take your exact same argument and use it against Capitalism in pre-revolution France

    My argument that disparity is caused by people pursuing power and not economic systems?

    Please explain how your example of France proves my argument wrong.

    • Cowbee [he/him]@lemmy.ml
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      2
      arrow-down
      1
      ·
      9 months ago

      Because history occurs over time, not instantly.

      Here’s perhaps the funniest use of your own terrible argument: you believe that humans cannot land on Mars, because it hasn’t happened yet, at least if you’re at all logically consistent. You also believe the iPhone 20 will never exist, of course.

      See why your argument that “if this is what happens over time, why hasn’t it happened now?” is horrible? You make no actual analysis, in fact, you run from analysis.

      Please make an actual point.

      • UsernameHere@lemmings.world
        link
        fedilink
        arrow-up
        1
        arrow-down
        3
        ·
        9 months ago

        Just because something hasn’t happened yet doesn’t mean it is guaranteed to happen in the future.

        I didn’t think that I needed to explain that to you. I was wrong. Sorry.

        I am not saying things can’t happen if they haven’t happened yet.

        I am saying if Socialism and Communism have existed for centuries and that whole time they have had disparity. What reason is there to believe that disparity cannot exist in socialist or communist economies?

        • Cowbee [he/him]@lemmy.ml
          link
          fedilink
          arrow-up
          2
          arrow-down
          1
          ·
          9 months ago

          I didn’t say it was guaranteed, I just said it’s possible.

          Communism has not existed for centuries, except in concept. It has never been achieved.

          Do you even know what we are talking about?

          • UsernameHere@lemmings.world
            link
            fedilink
            arrow-up
            1
            arrow-down
            2
            ·
            9 months ago

            Yes, I am talking about why you think Communism is the solution to inequality but it just hasn’t achieved it yet after centuries of existing.

            Then you moved the goalpost to claim that communism has never been achieved.

            So let’s talk about that now.

            Why do you think Communism has never been achieved but at the same time think it is capable of solving inequality?

            • Cowbee [he/him]@lemmy.ml
              link
              fedilink
              arrow-up
              1
              arrow-down
              1
              ·
              9 months ago

              I didn’t move the goalpost, Communism as a concept is a Stateless, Classless, Moneyless society that can be achieved after Socialism has built the groundwork for it. It hasn’t been achieved yet, because there have been no developed Socialist states yet, and Communism is a global, international system. It takes a long time to get there, it isn’t just something that poofs into existence.

              • UsernameHere@lemmings.world
                link
                fedilink
                arrow-up
                1
                arrow-down
                3
                ·
                edit-2
                9 months ago

                So Communism is:

                concept

                classless

                moneyless

                stateless

                achieved by Socialist states

                takes a long time

                never been achieved before

                I wonder why it hasn’t been achieved before.